Free BLS Practice Questions 2025: 25 Q&A with Explanations

Preparing for a basic life support (BLS) test may be difficult, especially if you have not practiced the skills or revisited the source for at least 304 months. Several healthcare providers struggle with the same issue. For instance, they remember the general cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) steps but forget specifics like compression rates.  

An American Heart Association (AHA) report already states that CPR skills acquired immediately after BLS training often deteriorate as early as 3 months. The best resort is to retake a free BLS practice test. This will help you refresh your skills and also feel confident when assisting in medical emergencies. In this guide, we will walk you through the top AHA BLS practice questions with their answers.  

Free BLS Questions and Answers 2025 

All BLS questions are in multiple-choice format, and you will get four options to choose from. While there are several options available on the internet, we have curated this list of BLS provider questions with rationales for your understanding: 

1. Which of the following is not an immediate life-threatening event? 

1. Cardiac arrest 

2. Heart attack 

3. Respiratory arrest 

4. Airway obstruction 

Answer: Heart Attack 

Rationale: A heart attack can be the most life-threatening condition, but it often progresses slowly. Conversely, cardiac arrest, respiratory arrest, and airway obstruction immediately affect vital functions that require instant intervention. 

2. Which of the following groups of individuals can administer BLS? 

1. Physicians 

2. Emergency Medical Responders 

3. Trained observers 

4. All of the above 

Answer: All of the above 

Rationale: Only a trained person with a valid BLS certification, such as a physician, emergency medical responder, or trained observer, can administer BLS for emergency patients.  

3. Which of the following organs is affected irreversibly if CPR is delayed beyond 3 minutes? 

1. Kidney 

2. Liver 

3. Brain 

4. Lungs 

Answer: Brain 

Rationale: The brain is highly sensitive to oxygen deprivation. So, timely CPR is critical to preserve its neurologic function. 

4. What should be the minimum depth of a chest compression? 

1. 2 cm 

2. 4 cm 

3. 5 cm 

4. 6 cm 

Answer: 5 cm 

Rationale: According to the American Heart Association (AHA), the minimum depth of chest compression should be at least 2 inches (5 cm) for an average adult.  

5. Why is recoil essential between each compression? 

1. To give rest to the rescuer 

2. To prevent injury to the patient 

3. To allow the heart to fill with blood 

4. To allow blood delivery to the brain 

Answer: To allow the heart to fill with blood 

Rationale: A complete chest recoil ensures that the patient’s heart is fully refilled with blood. This usually allows maximum stroke volume during the next compression. 

6. How many chest compressions are delivered per minute? 

1. 60 

2. 80 

3. 100 

4. 140 

Answer: 100 

Rationale: The recommended compression rate is 100–120 per minute because this range maximizes perfusion while avoiding excessively rapid, shallow compressions. 

7. Which of the following maneuvers can be used if a cervical spine injury is suspected? 

1. Head tilt 

2. Chin lift 

3. Jaw thrust 

4. Roll over 

Answer: Jaw thrust 

Rationale: The jaw-thrust maneuver opens the airway while minimizing movement of the cervical spine, making it the preferred technique when spinal injury is possible. 

8. What is the timeline for a rescue breath delivery? 

1. One-second 

2. Two seconds 

3. Three seconds 

4. Four seconds 

Answer: One second 

Rationale: Each rescue breath should be given over about one second and be just large enough to make the chest rise; longer or forceful breaths increase the risk of gastric inflation 

9. What is the most likely complication if you deliver too much air during rescue breathing? 

1. Lung collapse 

2. Gastric inflation 

3. Pneumothorax 

4. Brain injury 

Answer: Gastric inflation 

Rationale: Excessive ventilation forces air into the stomach (gastric inflation), which can cause vomiting and aspiration and reduce effective tidal volume to the lungs. 

10. Which of the following rhythms is possible through an automated external defibrillator? 

1. Ventricular fibrillation 

2. Atrial fibrillation 

3. Asystole 

4. Pulseless electrical activity 

Answer: Ventricular fibrillation 

Rationale: AEDs are designed to detect and advise shock for shockable rhythms like ventricular fibrillation (VF) and pulseless ventricular tachycardia, which respond to defibrillation.4 

11. If the patient has an implantable pacemaker, which is the most appropriate action? 

1. Do not use the  AED 

2. Place the AED pads directly on the pacemaker 

3. Place the AED pads away from the pacemaker 

4. Use a magnet to divert energy from the pacemaker 

Answer: Place the AED pads away from the pacemaker 

Rationale: You should not place pads directly over an implanted device; position pads at least a few centimeters away so the shock still passes through the heart without placing the electrode directly over the device. 

12. If an AED advises “No Shock,” what should the rescuer do next? 

1. Stop CPR and reassess breathing 

2. Give two rescue breaths 

3. Continue CPR immediately 

4. Remove AED pads and reposition them 

Answer: Continue CPR immediately 

Rationale: When an AED says “No Shock Advised,” it means the heart is in a non-shockable rhythm, such as asystole or pulseless electrical activity. Since defibrillation will not help these rhythms, the rescuer must immediately resume high-quality chest compressions to maintain blood flow to the brain and heart.  

13. Which of the following CPR techniques is the best for infants? 

1. One handed 

2. Two handed 

3. Two finger 

4. Two thumb encircling hands 

Answer: Two thumbs encircling hands 

Rationale: The two-thumb encircling technique provides more consistent compression depth and better hemodynamics for infants than two-finger or one-hand techniques, especially when two rescuers are present. 

14. What is the ideal depth of compression for all infants? 

1. 2cm 

2. 3cm 

3. 4cm 

4. 5cm 

Answer: 4cm 

Rationale: Infant compressions generally target about one-third of the anterior–posterior chest depth, roughly 4 cm, depending on size, to provide effective circulation without causing excessive injury. 

15. What is the best position for the placement of child AED pads? 

1. Anterolateral 

2. Anteroposterior 

3. Posterolateral 

4. Mediolateral 

Answer: Anterolateral 

Rationale: Child AED pads are placed in the anterolateral position because this placement allows the shock to travel effectively through the heart. It ensures proper pad separation on a smaller chest and reduces the risk of pads touching or overlapping, which can prevent a safe and effective shock. 

16. Which of the following is not a sign of poor perfusion? 

1. Weak pulse 

2. Cyanosis 

3. Pale skin 

4. Warm extremities 

Answer: Warm extremities 

Rationale: Poor perfusion is typically signalled by weak pulse, cyanosis, and pale skin; warm extremities usually indicate adequate peripheral blood flow and are not a sign of hypoperfusion. 

17. Which of the following protocols uses a 15:2 compression-to-ventilation ratio? 

1. Single-rescuer for adults 

2. Two-rescuer for adults 

3. Two-rescuer for children 

4. Single-rescuer for children 

Answer: Two-rescuer for children 

Rationale: Two-rescuer pediatric CPR traditionally uses 15 compressions with 2 ventilations to increase the relative frequency of ventilations in children, who more often arrest from respiratory causes 

18. How frequently should you reassess an AED rhythm? 

1. One minute 

2. Two minutes 

3. Five minutes 

4. Seven minutes 

Answer: Two minutes 

Rationale: After delivering a shock (or when CPR is in progress), pause only briefly to allow the AED to analyze and typically reassess rhythm/pulse approximately every 2 minutes. 

19. Which of the following is an antidote for opioids? 

1. Pethidine 

2. Naloxone 

3. Oxycodone 

4. Felypressin 

Answer: Naloxone 

Rationale: Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid toxicity and respiratory depression and is a standard emergency antidote for suspected opioid overdose. 

20. Who can perform hands-only CPR? 

1. Untrained observers for adults 

2. Untrained observers for children 

3. Trained observers for adults 

4. Trained observers for children 

Answer: Untrained observers for adults 

Rationale: Hands-only CPR (chest compressions without rescue breaths) is recommended for untrained bystanders providing aid to adults, because it’s simpler to perform and better than doing nothing. 

21. Which of the following usually indicates mild choking? 

1. High-pitched noise 

2. Continuous cough 

3. Inability to cry 

4. Cyanosis 

Answer: Continuous cough 

Rationale: A person with mild airway obstruction can cough forcefully and breathe; continuous effective coughing indicates a partial obstruction rather than a complete (silent) one requiring immediate thrusts. 

22. The Heimlich maneuver is generally not suitable for:  

1. Adults 

2. Pregnant women 

3. Children 

4. Infants 

Answer: Infants 

Rationale: For infants under one year, abdominal thrusts (Heimlich) are not recommended. Instead, use a combination of back blows and chest thrusts tailored for infants. 

23. How many back blows must alternate with abdominal or chest thrusts for choking relief? 

1. Four 

2. Five 

3. Three 

4. Six 

Answer: Five 

Rationale: Current basic life support guidance commonly calls for a sequence of up to five back blows alternated with up to five abdominal/chest thrusts until the airway is cleared or the person becomes unresponsive. 

24. What is the compression-to-ventilation ratio for giving CPR to any individual? 

1. 30:1 

2. 30:2 

3. 15:1 

4. 15:2 

Answer: 30:2 

Rationale: For single-rescuer adults (and for most standard single-rescuer scenarios), the recommended compression and ventilation ratio is 30 compressions to 2 breaths to balance perfusion and ventilation. Pediatric two-rescuer settings may use 15:2. 

25. What is the first action if a child is responsive but choking with severe airway obstruction? 

1. Start CPR 

2. Perform abdominal thrusts 

3. Give rescue breaths 

4. Lay the child down 

Answer: Perform abdominal thrusts 

Rationale: For responsive children with complete obstruction, abdominal thrusts are the recommended first-line intervention.

Take a Free BLS Practice Test Now! 

It’s not difficult to find a free BLS practice exam PDF that includes the practice questions and answers. You can easily access these questions and attempt the BLS practice test multiple times to get equipped with the skills and knowledge to help people in emergencies. However, you also need to be certified enough to gain the skills before attempting these exams. Enroll in our accredited BLS certification and get ready to save lives soon! 

FAQs 

1. How many questions are in the BLS test? 

There are 25 questions in a BLS test. This is also included in the BLS sample questions for healthcare providers. However, the exact numbers may vary depending on the certifying organization. However, in most cases, the standard exam includes 25 questions.  

2. What are the 7 steps of BLS? 

The 7 steps of BLS include: 

• Ensure the scene is safe 

• Assess the responsiveness of the victim 

• Activate emergency response by calling for help or using an AED 

• Check for breathing and pulse 

• Begin high-quality chest compressions 

• Provide effective rescue breaths 

• Apply the AED and follow its instructions 

3. What are the questions on the CPR test? 

The CPR or BLS practice test usually includes questions related to what CPR stands for and its primary goals. A few other questions include the process of recognizing cardiac arrest, the correct steps for adult and child CPR, and when and how to use an AED.  

4. Is it hard to pass the BLS exam? 

A BLS exam is not difficult, as long as you train under a certified provider, follow all resources and reading material, and pay attention to instructor’s training and feedback.